Hmmm... I was thinking about this more... I know that when a type 1 diabetic exercises a lot without eating and without having taken insulin, their sugar goes low. Was glucose able to be taken up only because of "contraction-induced glucose uptake?"
From this website, http://www.ncbi.nlm....pubmed/18401805, it looks like contration-induced glucose uptake due to exercise is insulin-independent?
OR is it that there HAD to be some insulin left in their system since their last dose? Does the exercise only increase sensitivity to the small amount of insulin present...?
In other words, would their blood sugar have ever decreased if they had never taken insulin before (an untreated diabetic.)
Thanks so much! so confused... #=_=