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[Paja]

Dear colleagues,
I am studying nondisjunction in meiosis and wonder why in almost all sources one can find explanation for nondisjunction in meiosis I (they say maternal age is the primary reason) but noone elicits the reason for meiosis II nondisjunction (just that it is maternal age-independent).
Would someone be so kind and share his/her knowledge about Why does nondisjunction happen in meiosis II? What is the reason for it?

Thank you very much in advance.
Paja